Why don't they take the pips away from the champions? - page 7
You are missing trading opportunities:
- Free trading apps
- Over 8,000 signals for copying
- Economic news for exploring financial markets
Registration
Log in
You agree to website policy and terms of use
If you do not have an account, please register
To your picture... The scheme of buying is shown, so in a real brokerage company no one will allow to calculate a stop loss for buying from Bid price, because the buying is at Ask price and the nearest take is calculated from it.
Volodya, I understand that. Only one thing is not clear - TP=Spread or not in this case?
TP=Spread is like TP = 0, but in fact TP=Spread+2 then we have a profit of 2 pips.
To your picture... The scheme of buying is shown, so in a real brokerage company no one will allow to count stop lel for buying from Bid price, because the buying is at Ask price and the nearest take is counted from it.
Not so, the Stop Lavel on buying is counted from the Bid price
TP=Spread is like TP = 0, but in fact TP=Spread+2 then we have a profit of 2 pips.
Enjoyed watching the thread. Thanks, fun forum :)
But now it's not clear to me either.
In the rules:
if 25% of trades have profits within the spread, the participant will be disqualified
But if TP=Spread is like TP = 0, then there simply cannot be a profit. And if TP < Spread, there will be a minus.
And in order to have a profit, we need TP > Spread. (If you look at it this way - it turns out that it 's almost impossible to profit within the spread).
Then why this clause in the rules? Is it a mistake on the part of the organisers?
And for there to be a profit, you need TP > Spread. (When viewed in this way, it turns out that a profit is virtually impossible within the spread).
Then why is this clause in the rules? A mistake on the part of the organisers?
You are right, I think MetaQuotes should step in and clarify the whole situation.
It's a pleasure to keep an eye on the thread. Thanks, fun forum :)
But now it's not clear to me either.
In the rules:
If profit of 25% of trades by the results of the contest is within the spread, then the participant is disqualified
But if TP=Spread is like TP = 0, then there simply cannot be a profit. And if TP < Spread, there will be a minus.
And in order to have a profit, we need TP > Spread. (If we view it this way, it turns out that it is practically impossible to profit within the spread).
Then why is this point in the rules? Errors of the organizers?
I think I've got it. We all equate the Profit with TP. But as it turns out, they are different things. And in this case, Profit is not equal to TP. TP, considering the spread, may be more than 2 points with stop loss limits starting from 4 points. I.e., it may be 3 points when buying, 5 points when selling, and it is within the rules. But there can be problems with profit. Just Profit=Spread=2
TP=Spread is like TP = 0, but in fact TP=Spread+2 then we have a profit of 2 pips.
You are right, I think MetaQuotes should step in and clarify the whole situation.
+1
But if TP=Spread is like TP = 0, then there simply cannot be a profit. And if TP < Spread, there will be a minus.
And for there to be a profit, you need TP > Spread. (When viewed in this way, it turns out that a profit is virtually impossible within the spread).
Then what is the reason of this point in the rules? It is the organizers' mistake?
It's not like that. It doesn't matter where the TP is and whether it was there at all. Perhaps, the trade was closed out of the market. What is important is the size of the profit. If the obtained profit for 25% of transactions does not exceed the spread for this pair (say, 2 points), then this fellow goes to hell.
It's not like that. It doesn't matter where the TR is or if there was a TR at all. The trade may have been closed out of the market. What matters is the size of the profit. If for 25% of transactions the size of the obtained profit will not exceed the spread for this pair (say 2 points), then this comrade goes to hell.
This is why the spread will not be floating during the contest. How can we then prove that the order closed with a profit within the spread? At what moment would you take the value of spread?
So you ask for an explanation,
you'll get it all below 25% and you'll be forced to believe it
so
gentlemen philosophical developers!
before you go to the meta-quotes for clarification
you should get your programmers
have them write an analyzer for you