Quantum analysis Duca - page 58
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And Duk has a wavelength ofLambda=2*r.
Where did the number pi disappear to? I don't know... The theory doesn't need to be considered further.
His r is a constant price increment. Half of a wave.
Suppose r = 50 points and when the price from the last point has changed by r, you write the new price and so on.
It turns out we don't need Pi, the meaning will not change, just the step will increase.
Another question is how to take the value of r, it is more logical to take it from volatility.
Let's now try to make sense of Duc's formulas, which he gave his name to:
Now we are interested in the wavelength Lambda=2*r
Let's look at the classical definition:
From de Broglie's formulas we have:
Lambda=(2*Pi*h*n)/p, where
Pi=3.1415926...
h is Planck's constant
n - unit vector in the direction of wave propagation
p - impulse of the particle
In this case, dimensions of the right and left parts of the relation coincide.
In Feynman's problem thespeed of light with (in fact, the speed of a relativistic particle), the mass of the particle m and Planck's constant h =1
In this case the momentum of the particle p=m*c=1.
We obtain:
Lambda=2*Pi*n, where n is unit vector in direction of wave propagation
And in Duk's case wavelengthLambda=2*r.
Where did the number pi disappear to? I don't know... Next, the theory can be disregarded.
is it at all possible to consider tics as the motion of particles? is it adequate? is there a reason to do so? this question for some reason is not even considered but accepted as dogma
And quantum theory works just as well on the plane as it does in 3D?
In one-dimensional price space. There is no plane.
Flux density is independent of distance and all that...
In one-dimensional price space. There is no plane.
with a point or something that moves to the right
Let's now try to make sense of Duc's formulas, which he gave his name to:
Now we are interested in the wavelength Lambda=2*r
Let's look at the classical definition:
From de Broglie's formulas we have:
Lambda=(2*Pi*h*n)/p, where
Pi=3.1415926...
h is Planck's constant
n - unit vector in the direction of wave propagation
p - impulse of the particle
In this case, dimensions of the right and left parts of the relation coincide.
In Feynman's problem thespeed of light with (in fact, the speed of a relativistic particle), the mass of the particle m and Planck's constant h =1
In this case the momentum of the particle p=m*c=1.
We obtain:
Lambda=2*Pi*n, where n is unit vector in direction of wave propagation
And in Duk's case wavelengthLambda=2*r.
Where did the number pi disappear to? I don't know... You don't have to look at the theory further.
That's right, Duk's theory, like GTR and KM, "stands on the shoulders of Giants", as Einstein said.
with a dot or something that moves to the right
Or to the left. And nowhere else.
Maxwell's fourth equation (Ostrogradsky-Gauss theorem) indicates that the interaction force of particles is independent of the distance between them.
When you are the owner of a brokerage company you work with clients' money on the external market with your own trading system. And clients are fighting amongst themselves inside the DC.
DearQuantumBob: Please disregard my former student Max Demetrievsky, his maximum is animport catboost I am ashamed of him, for having undertaken to teach him and what the result was
Or to the left. And nowhere else.
Maxwell's fourth equation (Ostrogradsky-Gauss theorem) indicates that the interaction force of particles is independent of the distance between them.
Judging from the author's drawings, there is a channel
Or to the left. And nowhere else.