Uladzimir Izerski page - page 54
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There must be a twist to trading which increases the likelihood of the speculator being in profit.
Where do instrument price reversals occur?
Where everyone starts to sell when the price goes up and buy when it goes down. These are levels for the speculator.
Actually these are convenient places for currency exchangesfor sellers of the real sector of the economy, as well as becoming convenient for speculators.
In such cases, there is a category of players who wait for high liquidity and buy all the sales. Since all the liquidity in the world is not known, most likely there will be a blow-out in the direction of stop-loss speculators.
Pretty simple and straightforward. In simplicity lies the truth.
That's where you're wrong, not even close.
it's in these cases we have a continuation of the trend.
the trend will continue until the speculators run out of money
it could turn into a black swan and that's easy.
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In fact, these are convenient places for currency exchangesfor sellers of the real economy, as well as becoming convenient for speculators.
....
The real sector does not give a shit where to exchange currency, because they are not interested in making money on currency movements, they are interested in the spread.
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In such cases, there is a category of players that look for high liquidity and buy all the sales. Because all of the liquidity in the world is not known, it is likely that the price moves in the direction of stop-loss speculators.
....
the wider the spread against the price, the worse the liquidity.
It is calculated in one go and is very well known.
the wider the spread relative to the price, the worse the liquidity, it's simple
it's a one-two punch, and it's very well known.
That's where I am curious. Can I have a few words of clarification specifically? Or a secret?
This is where I wonder. Can I have a few words of clarification specifically? Or a secret?
spread in pips*volume of 1 lot/price
it may be wrong, but the liquidity comparison ratio is 100%.
spread*volume of 1 lot/price
It may be wrong, but it is a 100 percent comparative ratio for liquidity.
The price has no effect on the spread. Spread and price are not related.
The spread is liquidity, and the price is the estimated value of the asset.
The price has no effect on the spread. Spread and price are not related to each other.
The spread is liquidity, and the price is the appraised value of the asset.
What do you think?
flat, matches, currency
How do you choose the most liquid commodity among them?
but to think about it?
flat, matches, currency
How do you choose among them the most liquid goods?
It all depends on the situation. When there was a cry about "the end of the world and the approach of meteorites", matches were in demand.
It all depends on the situation. When there was shouting about "the end of the world and the approach of a meteorite", matches were in demand.
When demand rises, so does the price.
when demand rises, supply rises.
when supply grows, spread decreases
spread decreases as the price rises - liquidity increases
so thinking is a must
when demand rises, so does the price
demand rises, supply rises
supply increases, spread decreases
spread decreases when price increases - liquidity increases
so thinking is a must.
Yes, but it does not apply to forex, it is not a stock where it goes up or down. In forex there is no concept of "asset is undervalued/overvalued".
Pretty interesting. But it seems to me that spread is managed by DC. Formally the spread is not attached to the price. It depends only on the whim of DC.
I agree here. although it is interesting to check Renat's words on tick data, in a comparative table. who knows, maybe there really are significant spikes before a good signal. but I think this is only suitable for pipsing.