The absurdity of a stop loss - page 22

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There is no loss of half the spread :)
 
ratnasambhava:

Let me try again. So, for every position change we give half of the spread (not counting slippage) to the "middleman" - that's first. Second, triggering of TP (or SL) = = change of position. Thus, half of the spread has been taken from us, against our will. Well and thirdly, MO using SL and TP "no brainer" (I do not know how to put it more clearly), == ~0 without taking into account intermediary commission, and taking it into account ==-spread/2.

So if your TP has "brains", that's just fine.

Also, there are different cases of using TP(SL) where losing half of the spread can be justified.


Who do you give what to ?

Spread is the natural difference between the buy price and the sell price

 
TheXpert:
There is no loss of half the spread :)
How much is there?
 
paukas:
How much is there?

The point was that the loss arises from closing on sl or on tp, as opposed to closing on the market
 
ratnasambhava: Let me try again. So, for each change of a position we give half of the spread (not counting slippages) to the "intermediary" - this is first. Second, triggering of TP (or SL) = = change of position. Thus, half of the spread has been taken from us, against our will. And thirdly, MO of using SL and TP "without brains" (I do not know how to put it more clearly), == ~0 without taking into account mediator's commission, and taking it into account ==-spread/2.

If you want to be understood - show the calculations.

The whole spread is charged to the trader strictly at the time the position is opened. Regardless of whether you calculate the expectation of the trade or not.

 
Mischek:

The point was that the loss occurs when you close exactly on the sl or on the tp, as opposed to closing on the market

Stop loss is a close on the market. You don't need to ask any questions. But the tp is against.

 
paukas:

A stoploss is a close on the market. That's a no-brainer. But it is against the tap.



M-M-M-M-M... SMIIIIIRNA!... :-)))
 
Mathemat:


The whole spread is charged to the trader strictly at the time the position is opened. Regardless of whether or not you calculate the expectation of the trade.

close;). The current minus shows how much you would lose if you close right now. For buying, for example, if the brokerage company has floating spreads, then if the ask is unchanged, this value will constantly change with the change of the bid-ask - closing price. This is the commission, if any, that is paid when the position is opened.
 
ZZZEROXXX:

here is the result without stops 0.1 lot without MM 1H test at 1M all ticks

what was the reason for the movement before 06.2004?


I give you a picture!
 
ZZZEROXXX:

here is the result without stops 0.1 lot without MM 1H test at 1M all ticks

what was the reason for the movement before 06.2004?

)))) thanks for the picture Tantrik, but about the subject of my question and the topic of this topic - to be or not to be a stop - nobody has any opinion? Because till 2004 year quite real profit shows 6000 pt per year, the drawdown is small. And after that it is possible to squeeze it out of the chart, filtering deals.
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