On the unequal probability of a price move up or down - page 77

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Aleksei Stepanenko:

Checked, it is correct: EURUSD / GBPUSD = EURGBP

The red line is EURUSD / GBPUSD, the blue line is EURGBP, there is a slight discrepancy

Not

that's not what I meant,

i.e. the one that Oleg writes in 5 minutes

 

Looked into the terminal this morning. I was amazed. USDJPY trades closed at TP, 200+ dollars profit. I also looked closer and saw that the TPs were a little bit strange.

I looked closely and saw that the TPs were oddly small. Apparently, at the time of the share I updated the TP and SL for the first two pairs of trades, and set them for the third (share) pair, and instead of 200 pips I set 20 (!!!). Terrible. The trick turned out to be blurred.

Closed trades on EURJPY. Totally 198 dollars profit.

P.S. I set the SL and TP with a semi-automatic script that takes the value of TP and SL from a text file that does not have an extra zero. Shame on me.

However, the trades should have been closed anyway, the current (as of 7am Moscow time) discrepancy was 11 parrots:

Drove to work, sorry the trick got a bit blurry, but it worked nonetheless. I'll show trick 8 in the evening.

 
Maxim Kuznetsov:

I was subtly trying to hint that eurusd may not be eur/usd but eur/usd/usd at least sometimes I think so :-)

I'm bursting with coffee with laughter. I can't believe people are writing this seriously.
 
b2v:

Graphically - subtract the straight line at their point of contact from the "hyperbola" and you get a "parabola".
Maybe they're all using something strong.
 
b2v:
eurusd and usdeur no one gives
If you strain your brain by looking at the formulas I have given for decomposing a trade into a pair of trades, you can prove that an eurusd trade is identical to a usdeur trade to within a factor. Perhaps I will show it later when I am at the computer.
 
khorosh:

There are doubts about the calculation given. It says that the increments are in dollars. And to get them in dollars, you have to multiply by the lot and the point value. Suppose the lot is a single one, so we can omit it, while the pip value is necessary, because it =1 for EURUSD and GBPUSD, while EURGBP is approximately equal to 1.3.

The lot in the above ratios is single for ED and ED, for PD the lot is equal to EP-in-the-moment-closing trades. Nothing prevents you from multiplying the whole equation by any constant factor to change the volumes of ED and EP.

The EURGBP point value at the moment of closing trades is times higher than the ED or PD point value. That's exactly what it says there. Try to think about it again.
 
Mikhael1983:

Looked into the terminal this morning. I was amazed. USDJPY trades closed at TP, 200+ dollars profit. EURJPY trades are still in the market, minus 30-something dollars loss.

I looked closely and saw that the TPs were oddly small. Apparently, at the time of the share I updated the TP and SL for the first two pairs of trades, and set them for the third (share) pair, and instead of 200 pips I set 20 (!!!). Terrible. The trick turned out to be blurred.

Closed trades on EURJPY. Totally 198 dollars profit.

P.S. I set the SL and TP with a semi-automatic script that takes the value of TP and SL from a text file that does not have an extra zero. Shame on me.

However, the trades should have been closed anyway, the current (as of 7am Moscow time) discrepancy was 11 parrots:

Drove to work, sorry the trick got a bit blurry, but it worked nonetheless. Will show trick no 8 in the evening.

Hello to the members of the thread! It dawned on me today... I always wondered what law is basic in a method proposed by TC ("probability" described in the beginning of the branch is not to be smelled here ...). I am a physicist by training and I need a law that makes everything around me work ... :) Well, not a law, but at least a general understanding. Well, I had the idea that there is a certain law, and I found it! It's the law of conservation of energy!

Now how does it all work:

1) Subtracting one instrument from another we get the relative velocity of one currency against the other - right?

2) Then we multiply these relative velocities by the currencies themselves, but there are already velocities of price changes...

3) So we get velocities squared, which is acceleration.

4) Everybody knows the formula E=m*c2 ??? That is exactly what we have - we get a kind of energy "currency".

5) Then we have a golden ratio to which both currencies should aspire.

6) We know the acceleration of both. The energy should be equal, and consequently we calculate the proportion of mass of each currency - and this is nothing else but the volume of orders.


Something like this ... :)


Regards, RomFil

 
RomFil:

I'm a physicist by training...

...

... velocity squared, and that's acceleration.

Still, it seems that there are people here who use something very strong very often.

Well, or they don't give a good enough general physics education in kindergarten.

By the way, the well-known formula E = m*c^2 becomes true if you write it this way: E = (plus/minus) m*c^2, may readers forgive me for not being able to find +/- one symbol on my phone.
 
Mikhael1983:
Still, it seems that there are people here who use something very strong very often.

Well, or the kindergarten gives insufficient quality education in the field of general physics.

By the way, the well-known formula E = m*c^2 becomes true if you write it this way: E = (plus/minus) m*c^2, may readers forgive me for not being able to find +/- one symbol on the phone.

Yeah I do! Lots and lots of different ones, so as not to get addicted ... :):):)

If I approach the question from a "mathematically theoretical" point of view, I could probably (just don't know it myself yet) prove my point with a few hundred formulas ... But I won't. For me the principle I have described is enough, which by the way with some transformations can be used in practice.

Sincerely, RomFil.

 

-Tell me, can you also lift the wall in the shop... Ah, what a useful invention!

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