Calculation of the slope angle of the trend line. - page 6
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Oh, yes, I'm mistaken. The phrase "please tell me either the formula or some method by which it can be done" was written not by you, but by another participant. I apologize. Well, that's my answer to the other one:
The slope of a trend line cannot be measured in degrees unless the scale of the coordinate axes is fixed. Therefore, it makes much more sense to measure the slope in points (price) per bar (per unit time).
Well you, Renat, forgive me generously, my answer (which you don't need at all) has nothing to do with you.
Personally, that's how I understand this fic, for the argument seems to be out of the grind.
There are people here who understand the difference between cents and dollars and are lost in the scale without a compass
I will put it succinctly:
The angle (a triangle as such) can be reproduced at any scale, the main thing is to understand that it has not changed. And if someone has changed, then look for an error in the calculation.
The angle (a triangle in essence) can be reflected at any scale, the main thing is to understand that it has not changed. And if someone has changed, then look for an error in the calculation
Well how is it not a change if the slope is 5 degrees on one scale and 45 degrees on the other ?
Would you say this is "no change"?
In my opinion, a trend cannot, in principle, be tied to corners - precisely because corners depend on the scale. The initial base of the trend is price and time, respectively, and the slope of the trend should be measured in those values. Without any angles.
How could it not change if one scale has a 5 degree incline and the other has a 45 degree incline ?
Would you say that's "not a change" ?
My view is that a trend cannot, as a matter of principle, be tied to corners - precisely because corners depend on scale. The initial base of the trend is price and time, respectively, and the slope of the trend should be measured in these values. Without any angles.
Ahh I see what it is.
In terms of what the trader and the trading system need - it will not change
In terms of what is displayed on the screen - it will change.
Calm down, don't waste paper.
To each his own.
I already wrote about it above, just no one understood it
Ahh, I see what this is about.
In terms of what the trader and the trading system need - it won't change
From a display perspective, it will.
Calm down, don't waste paper.
To each his own.
I already wrote about it above, it's just that no one understood
I think the angle cannot change according to the price, it means the visual angle coincides with the given cleavage and the other is false. But in any case, the angle will be the same in digital form.
How is it the same ??? You were presented with two screenshots - the trend is the same, but the angle is completely different ! Both screens are digital, as it seems...
And how can we determine that "this scale is orthodox and the others are heretical"?
...
Here are people who understand the difference between cents and dollars, and are lost in the scale without a compass
...
The task is to determine the angle of inclination numerically, it is constructed on the basis of the prices of already closed candlesticks for a certain strategy to work. Does the price of closed candlesticks change from the change of chart scale or does the slope of moving average change with the change of scale? Numerically nothing changes. It's like saying that with the zoom in the price went from the top to the bottom of the screen, if you zoom out the price is almost like a straight line. But did the price change as a result of zooming in?
Naturally, the price does not change from the change in scale, nor does the angle expressed in pips per bar change. But if you measure the angle in degrees... First, how do you measure it in degrees? There are two options:
1. You may use protractor against the chart (against the monitor screen). But we have already written about the influence of scale.
2. Through arctangent. But the length is in bars, and the height in points. What will be the result? What will be the result of points divided by bars? - There it is (slope expressed in points per bar). But why do we need the arctangent? What will it give? The arctangent will not give anything, because it will not be the usual degrees. It will just be a distortion of the value. It won't be a usable value. Points per bar, on the other hand, is a clear, tangible unit of measurement.
When height and length are in metres, then you can take the arctangent - it will be a familiar angle in degrees. By the way, angles are not always and everywhere measured in degrees. There are spheres and cases when it is measured in units of change in height per unit of change in length. For example - the quality of a glider, the slope of a road.
I think so too, the angle at the price cannot change, it means the scale which visually coincides with the given split is the only correct one, other scales are of the evil spirit. But in any case, the angle will be the same in digital form.
It's just that they found a formula somewhere for calculating pips per bar.
it's utopian...
that's why they're messing with people's heads.
two-timers
It's just that they found a formula somewhere for calculating pips per bar.
it's utopian...
that's why they're messing with people's heads.
two-timers
Read the previous post. Watch your language. You're the underachiever while you're here, with an attitude.
This formula is nowhere to dig, it is obvious. After making such statements, you are turning into a dull ignoramus and a fool.
Go and tell the whole world that they are measuring the slope wrong.