Yusuf's floodwaters - page 3
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Yusuf, this is not the Annals. The need for this thread is long overdue. You are invited here simply to help you sort out the wording.
Now to the point: do you know exactly how the profit/loss of an open position is calculated? Is it necessary to multiply the Lot by the Deposit? Let me remind you of the formula you wrote:
P(Q)=Deposit*Lot*(C2-C1)
Yusuf, this is not the Annals. The need for this thread is long overdue. You are invited here simply to help you sort out the wording.
Now to the point: do you know exactly how the profit/loss of an open position is calculated? Is it necessary to multiply the Lot by the Deposit?
Club of telepaths
Great! 5 points. It's the mega hit of the season!
Mathemat referred me here too!
Please help with the idea at https://forum.mql4.com/ru/40781
If you have been sent here, everything further is already happening on a telepathic level. All your questions are received, the answers are sent (via telepathic channel). The advisor is also written (mentally). All that remains is to accept the message (also telepathically, of course).
Yusuf, the exact formula for calculating the profit/loss of a position is as follows
P = Lot*(Ц2- Ц1)*Standard_lot_price*Position_direction (of course, not including swaps, spread, etc.).
For example, if we open sell 0.1 EURUSD at 1.46784 and close it at 1.48273, position direction = -1 (this is a sell), so
П = 0.1*(1.48273-1.46784)*100000*(-1) = -148.9 ($)
OK, second question: what formula do you use to calculate risk?
If not multiplied, how does the risk increase from transaction to transaction?
From the Lot and the distance (price difference) your position travels.
Yusuf, the exact formula for calculating the profit/loss of a position is as follows:
P = Lot*(Ц2- Ц1)*Standard_lot_price*Position_direction (of course, not including swaps, spread, etc.).
For example, if we open a sell 0.1 EURUSD at 1.46784 and close it at 1.48273, position direction = -1 (this is a sell), so
П = 0.1*(1.48273-1.46784)*100000*(-1) = -148.9 ($)
OK, second question: what formula do you use to calculate the risk?
You should have done it the way I suggested, then there is no need for -1:
П = 0.1*(1.46784-1.48273)*100000 = -148.9 ($)
another expectation:
P(y)=0.1*(? - 1.48273)*100000= ?? or P(y)=0.1*(? - 1.48273)*(100000-148.9) = ??? Actually how, since the advisor will open a BUY position?
Yusuf, I gave you the exact formula that calculates the result of the deal. Why are you changing it as you see fit?
And secondly, you haven't answered my question about risk.