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It depends on how one looks for these Fibs. If in the same way as Swannell, i.e. analyzing only waves of the same order, then one really cannot see any special "resonances" there: smooth p.d.f. without any prominent convexities. And if one searches through Fib clusters from waves of different orders, something might come out. I haven't found one yet :)
As for how to make quotations not take negative values, you just need to generate % increments instead of absolute ones.
As for the fact that the generator has a limited memory and repeats cyclically, it depends on the generator. There are some that are shifted by timer, others depending on CPU load, etc., etc.
It is the brain's skill to see levels and trend lines and it will find them on any data. When you have a hammer in your hand, everything seems like a nail. You have to check and understand what you want to use in trading, then similarity is of no importance :)
You can encode and represent as a similar chart anything: a novel "War and Peace", a digital photo, a favorite song, etc. Everything will be very similar and again the person wishing will find levels and what he has learned to distinguish, distributions of increments will be by the same functions (so coded :)), however it will not be the same and if you want you can restore the original.
1st order linear regression process.
AR(1)
y(n+1)=y(n)+e(n). where e(n) is normal noise with m.o. and std.
Anyway, the process we've built is
is a 1st order linear regression process.
AR(1)
y(n+1)=y(n)+e(n). where e(n) is normal noise with m.o. and std.
It's understandable.
But ichmo, you have to start at the other end. Prove that this phrase of yours is true "expectation 0. variance 0.0077. these parameters are similar to the real eurusd.
(See the first post) . A rigorous mathematical proof is needed. Proof which is very similar is not exactly something on which to base any conclusions
In general. the constructed process is
is a 1st order linear regression process.
AR(1)
y(n+1)=y(n)+e(n). where e(n) is normal noise with m.o. and std.
That's understandable.
But ichmo, you have to start at the other end. Prove that this phrase of yours is true "expectation 0. variance 0.0077. these parameters are similar to the real eurusd.
(See the first post) . A rigorous mathematical proof is needed. Proof which is very similar is not exactly something on which to base any conclusions
Parameters 0 and 0.0077 are taken from 1D EurUsd. for 2002-2004.
I don't know if I should explain. that generating AR(1) with parameters e(0,0.0077). showed those very pictures.
Clearly, it is stationary and ergodic, unlike the real market. (non-stationary and not ergodic).
With AR(1) with white noise a very interesting result was obtained. which I'm still digesting -).
And what I said in the 1st post, that dependence is very similar to forex and one can find different patterns there.
what is wrong here?
the conclusion remains the same forex is similar to the PRNG. the only difference is that the market
1. non-stationary 2. non-ergodic 3. partially deterministic.
I mean the market.
Of course, to say this is the same as to say nothing.
But to me, once again, the nature of different market figures has become clear.
Or did you have something else in mind?
IMHO, there's no need to reinvent the wheel. There is a wonderful thing called G.A.R.C.H. in MATLAB. Toolbox - just a tool for studying financial time series. See, for example, here: http://www.mathworks.com/access/helpdesk/help/toolbox/garch/.
Thank you. It's under my nose and I don't know.
GARCH is I know it's a non-linear regression model.
AR-MA-ARMA-ARIMA-NARX-ARCH-GRACH.
I took a look at the market modelling package.
I don't really understand this approach.
You take a pair, take the first difference, build an autocorrelation (correlation can only estimate linear dependence)
Then one of models, e.g. ARMA, is built.
But these equations include e(t). This somehow stops me from further study.
Have you worked with it?