On the unequal probability of a price move up or down - page 90
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Found the probability skew.
Well it's less than 1%, even if the pound is a 100 point 4-digit walk. The bias there is stated to be >10%.
Well that's less than 1%, even if the pound is a 100 point 4-digit walk. There's a bigger skew than that, >10%.
Why open 4 orders instead of two? (two pairs of pairs) am I missing something?
This is the key point. It seemed to be that their sum equals = the sum of the two original pairs. But on the last trade the red one is much higher than the pairs - it doesn't add up.
I'll read the first page again, maybe there will be some enlightenment...
I have a lot of smart guys, and no one who can read, understand, and explain the formulas from the first page. My school knowledge was only enough to convert the first pair and the second pair to a common result.When this thread first appeared I missed it, because I was sure that Michael has stupidly derived EURGBP. But it turned out not. A couple of pages ago Renat was talking about some average for two pairs and showed a screen with an indicator.
Anatoly, I confirmed the presence of the average by the indicator the buffers of which are the only and unambiguous conclusion.
This is an averaging method and there is nothing extra to add.
Of course there is a lock, but it is peculiar.
Let's switch to months and look at the charts of pair movements during the crisis years: 2008 and 2014.
We can see that USDXXX and XXXUSD moved by huge distances, but in different directions.
It is clear that there is an interrelated directional movement in these groups.
Let us take XXXUSD for example.
If one pair in this group is sold and the other is bought, there is still a possible loss on one pair.
Whether or not the losses will exceed the profits is the task of those who work with our real accounts.
If such trading can be called good, then as they say - master of the master, as luck would have it.
Anatoly. How to build a red line (or rather two identical ones with the precision of a linear transformation), Mikhail didn't tell us.
This is the key point. It seemed that their sum was equal = the sum of the two original pairs. But on the last trade the red one is much higher than the pairs - it doesn't add up.
I'll read the first page again, maybe there will be some enlightenment...
Anatoly, I confirmed the presence of the average with the indicator, which buffers only one and the same conclusion.
Pair trading is the usual averaging, and as they say, there is nothing extra to add here.
Of course there is a lock, but it is peculiar.
Let's switch over to the months and examine the charts of movements of the pairs during the crisis years: 2008 and 2014.
We can see that USDXXX and XXXUSD moved by huge distances, but in different directions.
It is clear that there is an interrelated directional movement in these groups.
Let us take XXXUSD for example.
If one pair in this group is sold and the other is bought, losses are still possible on one pair.
Whether or not the losses will exceed the profits is the task of those who work with our real accounts.
If such trading can be called good, then as the saying goes - master of the gun, as luck would have it.
As of 7:15 am Moscow 23.01.2019 the current layout of Focus 8: trades are on the plus side of $160 (swap is still paid 40, it would be 200), the mismatch is 109 parrots. We are looking forward to more profits.
this equality was already at the beginning (red arrow)
the two deltas are abbreviated with red X's and do not say anything, because:
you could also write your nickname instead of deltas and it would be exactly the same shortened
therefore, any formula is a basis for conclusions and definitions only when there is nothing else to be done in iti bet it won't !!! :-)
the nickname in the context of the formula is NaN at best, if not 0
Whether or not the loss overlaps with the profit is up to those who work with our real accounts.
And who is working with them?