An obvious way of predicting quotes for colleagues - page 12
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So, Monday. Ten to six p.m. Moscow time. For the sake of clarity, I made the interval 5 days instead of 2 (including 2 days off).
The discrepancy has reduced considerably, it is already essentially small. Time to close. The EURGBP target of 0.9030 has not been reached, though the price was almost there, at 0.9032. It is now near 0.9045.
In other words, one deal (opened for sell from 0.9060) is 15 pips ahead, the second one (from 0.9090) is 45 pips ahead.
All in all, everything went as expected, though it took a bit longer. Now the divergence is not big and there is a chance that it will grow again, i.e. we will have to wait some more for reaching 0,9030 level - I am closing both trades.
was there any profit at all, or only one fuss from two trades ?
If the trades were profitable, or was it just one nerve-racking two trades?
Did you at least make a profit, or was it just a nerve-wracking two trades?
Why all the fuss with the charts - EURGBP, end of Euro session, profit was coming to us, so let's close it?
What kind of stress may be caused, if it is clear, that the existing mismatch must close, and if it is increasing, it means that the swing will be bigger afterwards?
Both trades closed in profit.
As a matter of fact, if I were at the computer, I could close in the target 0,9030 with the accuracy of 1 - 2 pips, because the price was there too. But I closed at 0,9045.
What a fantasy, all the trades quoted in this thread ended in profits.
It is not a fantasy, it is a fact.
The fact is that the next couple of trades closed in profit according to the clear methodology of building additional curves with specified properties.
This does not exclude the above
Last season we never got to find out, the "quiet expectation of profit" hung in the air and the author evaporated to resurrect under a new nickname)
I still don't get it. Well we have two relationships. x/y and x/z. They have a common term, so when it changes we see a similar movement, but when the other terms change there will be nothing in common between them. So what makes it possible to make the assumption that the graphs will converge?
The hypothesis is that y and z are closely intertwined by other relationships.
For EURUSD GBPUSD roughly similar - the UK and the EU are closely intertwined by the relationship.
The hypothesis is that y and z are closely intertwined by other relationships.
For EURUSD GBPUSD roughly similar - the UK and the EU are closely intertwined by the relationship.
What prevents one country from choosing a failed policy, and getting a protracted economic crisis that will last for 500 years. And the other country chooses a successful policy. Nothing prevents them from doing so. And they will run away.