MACHINE period with minus value - page 12

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Here is another question for thought: if the MA is ahead of the price, how did it "know" that the price will go up and not down? And if it doesn't, what do we do then, turn around and redraw?
 

alsu:
С  ЕМА еще веселее - в ее расчете теоретически (опосредованно, но все таки) участвует бесконечное количество свечек. Т.е. Текущее значение ЕМА в теории обусловлено всей предыдущей историей (на практике, конечно, все только почти так, но с приемлемой точностью можно этим пренебречь). Отзеркаливаем - получается, что чтобы получить точное значение ЕМА с отрицательным периодом, нам нужно знать все будущие значения цены до скончания веков.

Here is another question for thought: if the MA is ahead of the price, how did it "know" that the price will go up and not down? And if it does not go up, what will it do, turn around and redraw?




what if to find the zero line of the price for last 10 bars or any other quantity of bars, from which the period shift occurs at +1, hence there is 0, and consequently it is necessary somehow to start from 0, with mirroring

About the second question I do not know what to say....

 
Caesar34:



what if to find a zero price line for the last 10 bars or any other number of bars, from which the period shift occurs at +1, hence there is 0, and therefore it is necessary somehow to start from 0, with mirroring

On the second question, I don't know what to say....

Let me explain! It is very simple! For the MA5 we take the last 5 bars, for the MA1 we take the last 1 bar, for your zero centre there is nothing, moreover for the MA1 there is nothing and will never be. Maybe you've got it now, eh?
 

Given the mathematical meaning of MA and TS's ideas on the last two pages, if we take the current price as "zero level" (which makes the most sense to me), we can get "some MA", but it will not be MA with a negative period (because it is an average on bars from "antimir"), but "some MA that is put aside on the other side of the price...". Calculation on each bar will be: Suppose the trend is upwards, the MA goes under the price (current price - MA = X pips), then "some MA that lies on the other side of the price..." = current price + X pips = current price + (current price - MA on the current bar)

*Probably, the current price should be considered an opener, so that "some MA does not jerk every tick".

* in a downward trend similar thoughts

what do you think?

 

I realised that it would suit the author of the topic to have the curve go above the price when the price goes up and vice versa. You need to shift the curve back by the number of the period.

 
yuripk:

I realised that it would suit the author of the topic to have the curve go above the price when the price goes up and vice versa. You need to shift the curve back by the number of the period.

But he needs to see it in the present moment, not in history. It is no coincidence that you cut off the entire period of the bars being counted on the right. There is no reason to support the illusions of the subject author!
 

For the moment, let him look at

2*iMA(1)-iMA(P)
 
Sorry, but MA(-N)=MA(N)
 

Caesar34


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Give me a definition and a normal specification for writing a MA with a negative period value. (at least in your understanding, how do you imagine it all?)

And don't forget to explain its physical meaning... again - in your understanding.

Otherwise, the theme is rubbish and sheer rubbish! from the cycle of "Write that, I do not know - what, send there - I do not know where" ...

Everything, IMHO!

 

Grandma went to the shop and bought minus 10 apples. When she returned home, she gave 3 apples to her grandson Vova and 5 apples to her granddaughter Masha. How many apples did the grandmother have left?

1...5678910111213141516171819...33
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