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Igor, that's called being clever. Or are you deliberately waiting for the next question "How?
do you want me to draw you a picture?
Yes, please.
Situation 1 - 2 (buyers in the red circle in the blue sellers) is a sellers and buyers, 3 - buyers, 5 - knock out sellers (2) in bu, 4 - sellers, buyers and immediately knock out buyers in bu, 6 is considered a classic set the blue horizon repeated knock out sellers 2 in bu, (1) buyers were not given to even close at 0, and -0.1 no one will close when they have already sat over -100 - but! they put stops under (4) pure psychology. And then it goes like this on the chart .... ))))))))
Situation 1 - 2 (buyers in the red circle in the blue sellers) is a sellers and buyers, 3 - buyers, 5 - knock out sellers (2) in bu, 4 - sellers, buyers and immediately knock out buyers in bu, 6 is considered a classic set the blue horizon repeated knock out sellers 2 in bu (1) buyers were not given even to close at 0, and -0.1 no one will close when they have already sat over -100 - but! they put stops under (4) pure psychology. And then it goes like this on the chart .... ))))))))
On the history we can see the tops - it's clear. )
But there is a question - in a 1-2 situation - according to Dmitry, there should be a majority of buyers, because the market is going against the majority. How can we determine this situation and formalise it without history?
On history, the tops are visible - that much is clear. )
But the question arises - in a 1-2 situation - according to Dmitry, there should be a majority of buyers because the market is going against the majority. How can we determine this situation and formalize it without using the history?
You look at the history and move the chart to the left - and you'll see what's happening now (you can try that). The market tops are random - no one knows where they will be!
I don't know about Dimitri (I haven't read the thread)
On history, the tops are visible - that much is clear. )
But the question arises - in a 1-2 situation - according to Dmitry, there should be a majority of buyers because the market is going against the majority. How can we determine this situation and formalize it without using history?
Here's an example from everyday life:
1. A man bought a car in a shopping centre for 1,000,000 roubles;
2. Did he drive it for a year or two? Drove it once into a pole, another into a closed gate, the third into a traffic police booth, repaired it and decided to sell it;
3. To whom? There are two options:
1. To sell it to a shopping centre. The shopping centre employs professionals who can buy a car for no more than 700,000 roubles.
They will buy it at a price that makes sense to them, i.e. they can find a buyer for the car themselves and make a profit;
Clearly, they will sell it for more, for 800,000-900,000, but not for more than a new car.
Professionals differ from suckers in that they cannot be bought for more than 1,000,000 .
Nor will it be possible to give them a car worth 950,000 because in that case they will not make any profit.
2. To find a buyer who will buy the car for 800,000-900,000. Maybe you will get lucky and find a sucker who will
In the case of forex, you may be lucky enough to find a sucker who will buy the car for more than 1,000,000 roubles.
Who should a man rely on? A professional from the shop or an amateur?
===
In the case of forex, you have to count on the fact that you will be bought by professionals, not dilettantes. And it is amateurs who should be buying from,
people who misjudge the value of the instrument and grossly underestimate it.
If you are able to sell to professionals, then selling to amateurs will not be a problem for you. And if you can find a sucker, that's great.
Well... let's say.) And how do you find those points on the chart where you can price a currency... well, before it goes down?