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I have derived a formula for determining the highest purchase price of a commodity above which no profit can be made under market conditions at any value of its subsequent selling price, depending on the share of variable and fixed costs in future income. If you are interested, you are welcome to discuss.
Very interesting
The most profitable one is sought by greedier people, and greed doesn't do any good. )
Better not to buy potatoes, but to grow them. And the most profitable option is to provide services to the population for ploughing fields, ploughing, and digging potatoes (of course mechanised).
and eating them in the presence of the customer
and eating them in the presence of the customer
Dim, what a topic you've raised...
This problem has no adequate solution with such conditions. The only thing that comes to mind in this situation is to calculate the arithmetic mean after half of the row, in the hope that at the end of the row there will be a price below it. Naturally, it is not certain that there will be such a price.
The potato example is not suitable for forex.
If you were to buy potatoes for yourself, you would buy the best ones, regardless of the price.
If for resale - then the one that will last longer, because the price will go up in spring anyway.
Again, if you think about forex, potatoes are not the most stable goods, in relation to which you can judge about expensiveness or cheapness.
Again, for what kind of currency they will sell you potatoes, I do not think that you can buy them for quid, euro or yen at a good price.
It all depends on what you start from, the point of reference.
If you look at the price of potatoes on the market that is one thing, if you look at real estate in Spain that is another.
What does cheap and expensive mean? Everything is relative. For example, the weakest currency right now is the dollar (after euro), which is shaking like hell, even ruble compared to dollar is the model of stability. More stable are the Canadian and the Australian, etc.
Maybe one should first find a reference point, from which to measure, and then to argue - is it cheap or expensive? Maybe even a basket of currencies with metals and equities as a yardstick?
No claims, just thoughts out loud (IMHO).
No, it's not the whole theme. It's just a part, a task to warm up. It's not certain that the price will be below average, but if it isn't, we have nothing to lose, go to another market or wait. And then, how far below average does it have to be? And why the average? And what kind of average? Many questions remain.
What's not to like about the princess problem - isn't that the right answer to your question?
Yusuf, you will be banned for spamming.
You've already created two topic threads
The Sultonov indicator on the MT screen
Have fun in them
Why can't the picky princess problem be applied to forex? (but as an unintelligent child, please explain)
It is very applicable, and in the context of two legible princesses:
Watch the previous 347 bars (history must be without holes) and time the highs and lows on them. And we place two expiration pending orders for a period of 320 bars: SellLimit for the spread + one pip above the maximum and BuyLimit for the spread + one pip below the minimum. If the orders go stale within 320 bars, we set similar ones but worse by one pip and expire for 333 bars. If these have also gone stale, we start again.
Very applicable:
We look at the previous 347 bars (history must be without holes) and note the highs and lows on them. And we place two expiration orders for a period of 320 bars: SellLimit for the spread + one pip above the maximum and BuyLimit for the spread + one pip below the minimum. If the 320 bars have gone stale, we set similar ones for high and low, and expire for 333 bars. If these too have gone stale, we start again.
Yuri, why exactly 347? Is it mathematically deduced or just an example? And what should be the profit of these orders? It turns out that even if the price is a couple of pips higher, it is the best of all the previous ones, but it may be the best even with a couple of pips difference comparable to the spread and then it will have almost no profit compared to a possible loss.