The Sultonov Regression Model (SRM) - claiming to be a mathematical model of the market. - page 32
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Does the accusation of looking for freebies apply to all forum members?
To you
The time variable is inadequate.
But the unpunished flooding of interesting topics by you is the problem.
Think about what's causing it.
Mishek's point is correct, simply "watch your mouth", the X-axis is time, not price depending on time (sort of the same thing, but very different). But some people like to fuck other people's brains out, but the question is how fucked up are their own brains?
The time variable does not meet the requirements.
The funny thing is that Yusuf is right. Translated from Yusuf's language, it looks like this.
A model is taken: x(t) = a*x(t-1) + error(t). In order to estimate the unknown parameter "a" correctly, a bias "c" and a trend in the form of time t with slope "b" are introduced. Finally, a regression is estimated of the form:
x(t) = c + a*x(t-1) + b*t+ error(t)
The parameter b =0 is often used for the EURUSD pair, but not always.
Which part?
Back to you
Curious then about the purpose of your being on the forum.
Self-esteem enhancement in scandals?
Other troll pleasures?
Where's even a drop of code? Flooding, flubbing sometimes nonsense, flubbing again.
Insults in explicit and implicit form.
I don't know what problem needs to be compensated for in this way.
I sincerely feel sorry for you.
And humanly please, because there are topics where you are in demand and your findings (lines, inserts, video, etc.) really enjoy - in these branches and specialize. And if there is something constructive to say in others, who minds.
But your flood (if not to say the threads fek...y) already tired.
Come to your senses.
The funny thing is that he is right. Translated, it looks like this.
A model is taken: x(t) = a*x(t-1) + error(t). In order to estimate the unknown parameter "a" correctly, a bias "c" and a trend in the form of time t with slope "b" are introduced. Finally, a regression is estimated of the form:
x(t) = c + a*x(t-1) + b*t+ error(t)
For EURUSD the parameter b =0 often, but by no means always.
The funny thing is that he is right. Translated, it looks like this.
A model is taken: x(t) = a*x(t-1) + error(t). In order to estimate the unknown parameter "a" correctly, a bias "c" and a trend in the form of time t with slope "b" are introduced. Finally, a regression is estimated of the form:
x(t) = c + a*x(t-1) + b*t+ error(t)
For EURUSD the parameter b =0 is often used, but by no means always.
Curious then about the purpose of your being on the forum.
Self-esteem enhancement in scandals?
Other troll pleasures?
Where's even a drop of code? Flooding, flubbing sometimes nonsense, flubbing again.
Insults in explicit and implicit form.
I don't know what problem needs to be compensated for in this way.
I sincerely feel sorry for you.
And humanly please, because there are topics where you are in demand and your findings (lines, video insertion, etc.) really enjoy - in these branches and specialize. And if there is something constructive to say in others, who minds.
But your flood (if not to say the threads fek...y) already tired.
Come to your senses.
Well, as always, instead of answering questions, trying to squeeze out of the thread in whatever way you are used to in your circle )