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Take 10 was still there, with 10 or more orders - forced closing of the bunch, but it never came to this condition)
What is the step of averaging entry price of orders and multiplication factor of the start position when opening averaging orders?
Do the others open if the first one went into profit and how?
What is the step of averaging price entry orders and the multiplication factor of the starting position when opening averaging orders?
Here's a good question...
We take the spread of price movement, divide it by the maximum number of lots, and find the step from the last open order. And the point value will be a step + (-) spread. Although, we will have to constantly modify it. It will be easier to track the profit. The coefficient or the degree of lot magnification is calculated based on the deposit and collateral.
It doesn't matter whether it went to profit or loss. The main thing is to go through a step and increase the lot. The increase is required in order not to wait for the pullback for the whole distance back. Several points of pullback will be enough, and we'll close in the plus position, if we were in the red. And if we were in the plus, we wait for the reversal to withdraw the large sum
What is the averaging order entry price step and what is the multiplying factor for the initial position when opening averaging orders?
I just put the lot at least 900 seconds after the last position opened. MM from free funds, more funds in equity and bigger lot, less funds and smaller lot, if two lots in a row the lot is "careful" and decreases for the next position.
I got the idea. But a logical question arises (probably discussed here, excuse me, but it takes a long time to reread everything) - if the trend is prolonged, then with a progressive increase in the lot it won't take long to drain everything. Or am I missing something? As if the calculation of lots should be calculated from possible trend durations (look at history?)?
Yes, the calculation is based on the previous history, therefore its existence is obligatory. Otherwise we have a guarantee of failure.
As we deal with losing money - we have an indicator just to close everything immediately if the trend does not go in the direction we want, i.e. if we are in the plus, the profit is calculated by the maximum amount of points in a step for all orders opened at that moment, and if we are in the minus, it is calculated by the minimum amount of points in a step for a minilot.
Yes, the calculation is based on previous history, so it is mandatory. Otherwise there is a guarantee of loss.
As for losing - we have an indicator for the case if the trend does not go in the vein - we close everything at once, i.e. when we are in the plus the profit will be obtained by the maximum, and when we are in the minus - by the minimum, i.e. the number of pips in a step.
А! Well, maybe. Only history does not guarantee that some "super" trend will not appear. And what indicator is used?
Well, look at the history of 30 years. Where have you seen a super-trend? What are you afraid of? Just define by software how many pips it will be and that's it.
I even showed the insides of the turkey (1-5 pages ago).
I just put the lot at least 900 seconds after the last position opened. The MM is based on equity, more equity and more lot, less equity and less lot, if two lots in a row the lot is "cautious" and decreases for the next position.
Interesting solution - averaging over time. I mean the multiplication factor between averaging orders how do we calculate? what lot should i open 1st averaging, 2nd averaging order...? where is the factor? The first start order - with MM of the deposit size - is clear...
Here's a good question...
... Coefficient or degree of lot increase based on depot and collateral
Thank you, Renat, for your answer.
...How?