I didn't survive that night (on GBP) - the deposit went negative. - page 3
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For each symbol, you can see a stop out. And the meaning of the term is exactly as I write it. What you wrote is called a "margin call" - translated as a "warning call". 15 years ago on the RTS there was a call about an imminent stop-out.
Imagine this situation. Buy 10 lots at 1.5 stop out will come in at 1.3. I hope you understand that each transaction has two participants - buyer and seller. Now the price is at 1.3 and the brokerage company has to close the buy. To close the buy is to sell. But there are no buyers at 1.3! No buyers at 1.2 and no buyers at 1.1. There's only one buyer at 1.0. As a result, the account went into deficit.
So this is the trader's problem? And if a trader sets a Stop Loss at 1.3. What then?
That is exactly the trader's problem. Stop loss and stop out orders do not guarantee that they will be executed at the stated price if there is no liquidity.
If the counterparty to the transaction was your brokerage company (you did not sign the transaction to the Interbank), you do not owe anything and the account is simply zeroed out. But if you took it to the Interbank ...
Let's make a hard distinction between a stopout and a stoploss.
A stop-loss is a type of order which is issued by the client. And on this subject of slippage and so on...
Stop-loss is a guarantee for the client by the broker that he will lose. We do not see real prices, that's why there is no sense to understand DC's difficulties. And stopout protects us from DT cheaters who can put, as it turns out now, several hundred pips spread and thus drive us into minus, that's a fact.
So my advice:
I predict the minimum result: they will remove the loss.
Maximum: they will restore the value of the stopout.
Good afternoon, colleagues.
I woke up on Friday (I had open positions with GBP the day before) and two trading accounts -800.00 USD. The reason - there was not enough deposit at the peak moment. As a result not only I have lost the deposit, but I have also got in debts. Has anybody had such an unpleasant experience? Will the broker make me deposit the money and pay out the loss or will he make a meeting and just reset the accounts?
Hello, the answer to your specific question about minus.
No one will force you to repay anything. It is you, by contacting support, as already written post above, will be able to adjust your balance to 0. There will be no debit in the account. You will be able to continue trading in this account.
That is exactly the trader's problem. Stop loss and stop out orders do not guarantee that they will be executed at the stated price if there is no liquidity.
If the counterparty to the transaction was your brokerage company (you did not sign the transaction to the Interbank), you do not owe anything and the account is simply zeroed out. But if you took it to the interbank market ...
The market will pay for stop out and stop loss. that's what it is for at any given time to ensure liquidity.
:) Naive.
Who is the market and why should he pay for everyone? If you mean the market maker, he does not owe anyone anything.
:) Naive.
Who is the market and why should he pay for everyone? If you mean the market maker, he doesn't owe anyone anything.
He has to provide liquidity...and in this case the market maker is the bank of england.
You ever wonder why the price suddenly goes to a certain level without any external background? Well, it's the market that closes its exposure when a big player sells to it...
These levels are called debt levels and expirational interest levels...
it has to provide liquidity... and in this case the market is the bank of England.
Ever wonder why the price suddenly goes to a certain level without any external background? Well, it's the market that closes its exposure when a big player sells to it...
These levels are called debt levels and levels of expirational interest...
But in that particular situation for the pound, there was no liquidity. So there was a sharp fall in gaps. According to your previous words it appears that the market maker now has to retroactively buy back all sales so that the trades of all traders would close at their desired price.
Assuming that liquidity on the pound is indeed provided by the Bank of England, all the bank employees were quietly and peacefully sleeping in their beds at that time as the time was 2 o'clock EET.
But in that particular situation there was no liquidity in the pound. That's why there was a steep drop with a gap. According to your previous words, it appears that the market maker now has to retroactively buy out all the sales so that all traders' deals would close at their desired price.
Assuming that liquidity on the pound is indeed provided by the Bank of England, all the bank employees were quietly and peacefully sleeping in their beds at that time as the time was 2 o'clock EET.