Absolute courses - page 26
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The author claims that this happens at all times and for all currencies.
Colleague, you are inadequate.
So you claim to be inadequate and I am inadequate? :)
The following Quote explicitly states that approaching the QC of any currency at any time interval to 1 is limited only by technical problems:
if you have a graph of 10,000 chunks and on each one the shape is known to be 0.9999 accurate by correlation, and the one is renormalised at the beginning of the graph each time, i.e. they are stitched together on scale, then isn't it obvious that error can only accumulate due to mismatch as time goes on?
Nah brother, you can't stop him that easily!
Yusuf is the white rabbit in comparison...
))))))
...until it is proven that conversion parameters do NOT depend on sample length...
everything will be the same. But if you start with a bar from 10000 up to that hundred, then on that 100 bar it will be no big deal, but simply because at each small length the correlation is not 0,999999999999999999999999999 but only 0,9999+ and the errors HAVE accumulated. Moreover, it is a technical problem and not a fundamental one. Give me a computer a million times more powerful and it goes away. But even that is not necessary for I do not need to draw in relation to a benchmark remote in the past for years. I can take any bar as a benchmark. YOU ARE PICKING ON THE SMALL THINGS NOT Worthy OF DISCUSSION EVEN, and the beauty of the construction eludes you.
So you claim to be inadequate and I am inadequate? :)
The following Quote explicitly states that approaching the QC of any currency at any time interval to 1 is limited only by technical problems:
if you have a graph of 10,000 chunks and on each one the shape is known to be 0.9999 accurate by correlation, and the one is renormalised at the beginning of the graph each time, i.e. they are stitched together on scale, then isn't it obvious that error can only accumulate due to mismatch as time goes on?
It doesn't. It's about correlations of RELATIONSHIPS of currencies with known ratios (observed in the metatrader). Between ED and ED made up of E and D, and so on. Not between E and D. Gone until tomorrow.
For this whole thread to make sense, proof is required:
1) That the currency indices are calculated in the ONLY RIGHT way
2) The formulas are valid for ANY time interval
So far just tricks of the arithmetic.
For this whole thread to make sense, proof is required:
1) That the currency indices are calculated in the ONLY RIGHT way
2) The formulas are valid for ANY time interval
So far just tricks of the arithmetic.
While you learn how to repeat the trick at least. And we'll talk more about trading on such tricks soon, using online trading as an example.
It doesn't. It's about correlations of currency RELATIONShips with known relationships (observed in the metatrader). Between ED and ED made up of E and D, and so on. Not between E and D. Gone until tomorrow.
And who claimed that by inverse substitution in the ratios you get a correlation of 1, who made the marks on the charts? You can see the individual indices there. Ah well, another clown fooling himself.
-Say, when can we meet?
-Never. Never will that suit you?
As long as you learn how to repeat the trick at least. And we'll talk more about trading on such tricks soon, using online trading as an example.
Are you going to give me the password too? Or are you going to feed us with stats?
As long as you learn how to repeat the trick at least. And we'll talk more about trading on such tricks soon, using online trading as an example.
Well, the conversation has now turned to "You get there first". That's sad.
GAO. It got to one.
Got to the halfway point of the decision). Tomorrow I will try to calculate. Actually I thought about it before, and stated it once even started.... that it is interesting with this method the indexes' standards should be equal approximately in all triangles forming right?