Correct calculation of the lot from the % of the deposit - page 8

 

why stoploss ? strange question... a counter question arises... are you at least a millionaire or otherwise, there is at least a million in the accounts you open ? (rhetorical question).

in fact in p. 3 is the calculation of the stop loss of 1 point is not it? so why not count with the real stop?

 
keekkenen:

why stoploss ? strange question... a counter question arises... are you at least a millionaire or otherwise, there is at least a million in the accounts you open ? (rhetorical question).

in fact in p. 3 the stop loss is 1 pip or not? so why not use a real stop?


in principle yes. But then the stop loss in pips is not the % of the deposit.

The algorithm will be slightly different in this case

 
_new-rena:


In principle, yes. But then the stop loss in pips is no longer a % of the deposit.

The algorithm will be slightly different in this case


Stop loss is a percentage of the deposit, stop loss is a stop loss...

the flies are separate - the cutlets are separate...

Imagine that you have two Advisors in one account, one has 40% of the funds and the other the rest, and each has its own strategy - one has a dynamic stop and the other fixed

Each has its own risk (as a percentage of the deposit) and its own stops - order risks ... Depo is not limited and everyone must take into account their own stoplosses for a newly opened order, otherwise how can one open an order if he doesn't have enough oxygen (funds) to live up to stoploss - if you open it without regard to stoploss, then he may start to go into deficit and eat away part of the deposit - the share of the second EA that earns good money and is calculated on what he earned ...

The result is that instead of stopping, the Expert Advisor will lose not only its own, but your "friend's" grandmother's as well.

 
keekkenen:


A percentage of the deposit is a percentage of the deposit, stoppers are stoppers...

the flies are separate - the cutlets are separate...

Imagine that you have two EAs in one account, one has 40% of the funds and the other has the rest, and each has a different strategy - one has dynamic stops, the other has fixed stops...

Each has its own risk (as a percentage of the deposit) and its own stops - order risks ... Depo is not limited and everyone must take into account their own stoplosses for a newly opened order, otherwise how can one open an order if he doesn't have enough oxygen (funds) to live up to stoploss - if you open it without regard to stoploss, then he may start to go into deficit and eat away part of the deposit - the share of the second EA that earns good money and is calculated on what he earned ...

As a result, instead of stopping, the Expert Advisor will lose not only its own, but your "friend's" grandmother's too...



I agree, but I don't use stops at all, as I'm not interested in any kind of drain.

If a stopper is triggered (let's assume I have one too), it means that the RM is no good, and the risk should be reduced.

 
_new-rena:



I agree, but I don't use stops at all, because I'm not interested in any kind of loss.

If a stop is triggered (let's assume I have one too), then the PM is no good, and the risk should simply be mitigated.


If you don't have a stop then you cannot correctly calculate the order lot, because the lot value is in inverse relation to the stop, hence if there is no stop then the lot is maximal - guaranteed loss :)
 
keekkenen:

If there is no stop, you cannot correctly calculate the order lot, because the lot value is in inverse relation to the value of the stop, hence if there is no stop, then the lot is maximal - guaranteed loss :)

Lot=1/SL (?)
 
_new-rena:

Lot=1/SL (?)

roughly speaking, yes
 
keekkenen:

roughly speaking, yes


then introduce the probability(P) of a correct entry into the formula:

Lot=P/SL. In the normal case P will not exceed 0.5, therefore

Lot=1/(2*(SL+Spread))

For comparison, we need to calculate TP. How does it depend on the lot?

 
_new-rena:


then let's enter the probability(P) of a correct entry into the formula:

Lot=P/SL. In the normal case, P will not exceed 0.5, hence

Lot=1/(2*(SL+Spread))

TP needs to be estimated for comparison. What is the relationship?


It's too much to introduce probabilities into the lot calculation... or rather, it has nothing to do with lot calculation...

First you need to calculate the lot, it should be a separate function, and then if there is such a need to estimate the possible successful outcome,

then such estimation (say, probability) should be used to change the calculated lot size...

As for TakeProfit, it has no effect on the loss...

 
keekkenen:


If you have a need for a probability estimation (say, probability), use it to change the calculated lot size...

First you need to calculate the lot, this should be a separate function, and then if there is such a need to estimate the possible successful outcome,

then this estimation (let's say probability) should be used to change the calculated lot size...

as for takeprofit, it has no effect on the loss...


I mean, is it even possible to get a condition through SL and TP where the final equation is greater than zero?