Who does JAPAN LIGHTS shine on? - page 12
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must be referring to M*.
I don't understand anything about the chart and the points. How is the daily better for the 100 pt target? These points will fit entirely on the daily bar, and on the small scale there will be a curve. >>4 half hour candlestick is 2 hours, what's wrong with a 2 hour lag if you're trading intraday?
I don't understand anything about the chart and the points. How is the daily chart better for the 100 pt target? These pips will fit entirely on the daily bar and there will be a curve on the small scale. If you trade intraday, what's wrong with 4 half-hour candles?
I don't know. I have a different goal setting system. If i trade on the daily, then my tp does not exceed 2*ATR (Daily) and in most cases it's less than 1*ATR.
Basically it's possible to make an entry on M30 with a higher TF, e.g. H1 or H4. (Of course not just for fun, but look at the history).
I don't know. I have a different goal setting system. If for example I trade on the daily, then my tp does not exceed 2*ATR (Daily), and in most cases it is less than 1*ATR.
Basically it's possible to make an entry on M30 with a higher TF, e.g. H1 or H4. (Of course not just for fun, but look at the history).
By the way, here is a simple filter for example. Conduct a test on M30 that starts at the beginning of each 4 o'clock time frame. When the signal triggers, we stand in a trade with the target - k*ATR (H4).
I don't understand anything about the chart and points. How is the daily better than the 100 pips target?
Let me explain: if the system has a hard 100p stop or take written on it, it's almost certainly a tweak to a specific par\time\period set. If the stop or take is calculated like this
If the parameter is less than 2*ATR (Daily), and in most cases it is less than 1*ATR.
If you set a time/period, such a parameter should work correctly, not necessarily profitably, but correctly on any set of time/periods.
then this parameter should, not the fact that it is profitable, but it should work correctly on any paratime/period set.
The problem here is also that the smaller TF we take, the less dependence in the dimensionality of the adjacent bars (in %), ie with increasing TF, ATR(1) is approximately equal to ATR(0).
By ATR I mean here the "high minus low" value.
For example, the probability of the ATR of the next daily bar being at least 70% of the ATR of the previous daily bar is about 76% (history of GU over the last 8 years).
I think this percentage will be less on lower timeframes (although I didn't check it myself...).
Let me explain: if the system has a fixed stop or take value of 100 points - this is almost certainly a fitting for a certain paratime period. If the stop or take is calculated like this:
then such a parameter should, not necessarily profitably, but - correctly work on any paratime/period set.
Let me explain to everyone at once!!!
I've only tried it on M30 so far, I haven't tried other TFs.... That's why I don't understand about M1.
Secondly, stop and take is not fixed!!!! and was not adjusted for history, the stop is placed at the low/high of the signal bar.... how can it be fixed????? what??? someone can predict what the low of the next (for example) bar will be??? As you can see, the price is not fixed, but it is 4 times bigger than the stop and is designed for a strong market movement.
I'll tell you that I tried 4 candles, the drawdown in this case is of course less... I chose these parameters based on max. profit and not max. profitability, for example, with certain parameters the system achieves a prof. factor of more than 6, but the number of trades drops significantly and with it the profit!!!!
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That's why I didn't understand about M1.
i didn't write about that specific expert. it was a general "rule": if it is written in any system that it works with some time-pairing set and when you open it, for example, you need to set a stop and the value of that stop is given by the system author as a number (like in my example - 100 points) - then it's not a system, it's a tweak.
When working with M1 I doubt that the working stop will be 100 points (at most it is the level of scalpers and pipers), therefore the system with a 100 points stop will not work with M1. And on D1 even 100 pips may be too small.
I didn't write about this particular expert. it was a general "rule": if it is written in any system that it works on such a paratime set and when opening, for example, you need to set a stop and the value of this stop is specified by the system author (as in my example - 100p) - then it is not a system but a fitting.
When working with M1 I doubt that the working stop will be 100 points (at most it is the level of scalpers and pipers), therefore the system with a 100 points stop will not work with M1. And on D1 even 100 points may be too small.
What prevents you from using M1 for longer frames?
I didn't write about this particular expert. it was a general "rule": if it is written in any system that it works on such a set of paratime and when opening, for example, a stop must be set and the value of this stop is specified by the system author (as in my example - 100p) - then it is not a system but a fitting.
When working with M1 I doubt that the working stop will be 100 points (at most it is the level of scalpers and pipers), therefore the system with a 100 points stop will not work with M1. And on D1 even 100 points may be on the contrary too small stop.
I quite agree!!! stop and take should be determined by the TS itself, taking into account the current market situation, I just thought I was talking about my TS, and in it I did not use any M1 timeframe, and stops and profits in it are not fixed. I don't use M1 timeframe, it's not a fixed stop - I'm not using M1 timeframe and it's not a fixed stop. it is unlikely that the price will go back to this high, this is the main strategy of the system, but if it does!!! it will go further, so the stop is obligatory there!!!! and it can only be from 30 pips. so what.... it's set on a fractal!!!
What prevents the M1 from building bigger frames?
What kind of bigger frames? In my opinion, even M5 is difficult to collect from M1, not to mention later timeframes.
Do you think there is a connection of candlestick patterns taken from M1 (for example, penetration of some levels on M1) to the direction of the day (D1)?
Or is there a relation of M30 candlesticks to a D1 candlestick (for example, if at 0830, M30 is white, then 75% of D1 candlesticks will also be white => 100 pips average movement) ?
What do you mean???