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Oh! Cool peppers...
Nah, I'm not a union member, I can't have a beer :(
I can only talk about cows, profits, losses... Bored with me.
Nah, I'm not a union member, I can't have a beer :(
I can only talk about cows, profits, losses... Bored with me.
Don't be shy! There's room for everyone - cow lovers and non-lovers alike. :)
You have... No, I'm embarrassed.
Oh, come on. I'm like that man Occam's razor, when I come on this forum, I'm gonna start chipping away at the bullshit. Bearded bullshit is the most conspicuous.
Can you answer my "childish" questions? - Well, for old friendship's sake, since no one else wants to.
Napoleon is typical, but Occam's razor?! You know, it's a new case in psychiatry.
joo, no one has understood your questions in this thread, myself included. I don't think anyone has understood them yet.
In which cases (and in which combinations of SL and TP) is the probability of SL equal to 1 (excluding degenerate cases)?
Same question about TP.
PS Oh, and one more thing. Regardless of buy or sell, the probability of SL(TP) execution is exactly 1.
With fixed tp and sl there are no options - all are degenerate))) With variables as much as you want. For example, we open without leverage, stop-loss is zero, take profit is changed at each bar opening (for example m15) to 10 points from the current price. Take Profit will work with probability 1, unless the currency price reaches zero at once.
Of course, in that case take profit does not guarantee a profit:) Likewise a trailing stop guarantees a stop loss with probability 1 if there is no take profit or it is too far away.