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Why didn't you mention leverage "for the vast majority"? Does "for the vast majority" the size of the leverage doesn't matter much, and in any case "for the vast majority" the "best choice would be 2%"??
Something you've overlooked....
1. No more than 2% loss. The point value is independent of the leverage. 2% of 100 quid with 1:1 leverage equals 2 quid. 2% of 100 quid on a leverage of 1:500 is also 2 quid. Thus, if the leverage is different, the price should pass the same amount of points to receive this 2%.
2. The leverage only affects the deposited funds. That is, with lower leverage we will be allowed to enter with smaller maximum possible lot than with higher leverage. And this is a little different than point 1. :)
You can't help it, you'll have to learn a little bit.
1. No more than 2% loss. The point value is independent of the leverage. 2% of 100 quid with 1:1 leverage equals 2 quid. 2% of 100 quid on a leverage of 1:500 is also 2 quid. Thus if the leverage is different, the price should pass the same amount of points to receive this 2%.
2. The leverage only affects the deposited funds. That is, with lower leverage we will be allowed to enter with smaller maximum possible lot than with higher leverage. And this is a little different than point 1. :)
You can't help it, you'll have to learn a little bit.
Well you don't have to get out of it anymore :)))
It was originally about collateral at different shoulders. And if you don't consider these differences, losses will catch up with you much sooner.
Can't help it, you're gonna have to learn a little bit. --- I'm quoting you ;)
Well you don't have to get out of it anymore :)))
It was originally about collateral funds at different shoulders. And if you don't consider those differences, losses will catch up with you much sooner.
Can't help it, you'll have to learn a little bit. --- that was me quoting you ;)
You're not fixable...
Come on, guys, somebody explain it to him already. I'm exhausted.
To see for yourself, you can do a little experiment.
Open two demo accounts -- one with 100 leverage, the other with 200 leverage -- and place identical pending orders of equal volumes, with the same SL and TP parameters.
The results will not be long to come.
You will tell me later. You may also show pictures.
To see for yourself, you can do a little experiment.
Open two Demo Accounts -- one with 100 leverage, the other with 200 leverage -- and place identical pending orders of equal volumes, with the same SL and TP parameters.
The results will not take long to come.
You can tell me later. You can tell me later with pictures.
Yes, that's exactly what you should do. Also, check the point value in these two accounts.
Also, check the required margin in both accounts for one lot. Often the value of the leverage does not say anything at all, and the possibility of opening is checked with the margin funds, and not with the leverage.
Even without special tools that amplify the signal in the visible spectrum you will see that in one account the maximum possible position can be opened with, say, 10 lots, and in the other account only 5 lots. But with equal volumes of position, the loss after the price of an equal number of points will be identical!!!!!!
You don't want to perceive anything... And I don't have the slightest desire to prove to you obvious things, easily verifiable by a simple experiment. If you're too lazy to do such a simple test... ...well, you can stick to your opinion.
There's only one left! Ugh ... Now, wait, my colleagues will come and judge which of Us does not perceive reality at the minimum necessary level to calculate the risks... :)
By the time your colleagues get here, you'd have had time to check it out and demonstrate the results.
Okay. Let's make a bet. Let's say... 100 quid. The reputable comrades will judge. 2% (so there's an incentive to be a judge) of the winnings the loser transfers to the judge.