You are missing trading opportunities:
- Free trading apps
- Over 8,000 signals for copying
- Economic news for exploring financial markets
Registration
Log in
You agree to website policy and terms of use
If you do not have an account, please register
I agree 100% I think Oleg will start over again more than once or twice...
I see what you mean. And what risks, in your opinion, are "normal" and what risks are "excessive"? Where is the border? (I explained my understanding of this question a couple of pages ago)
Without knowing the trading system, it is difficult to talk about optimal risks.
That's why we can speak in general terms.
Without knowing the trading system, it is difficult to talk about optimal risks.
That is why we can talk in general terms
In the current timeframe, the dynamics of gold don't meet my selection criteria, so I don't use it. But things are changing very fast. And if gold Will fit within the selection criteria, then I will use it. А this is el dorado ;))
))))
Well, there are amateurs, not without that)
Empirically - the risk in each trade is no more than 2%. The optimal f of course for each TS is different, but for the vast majority the best choice will be exactly 2%.
Why didn't you mention leverage "for the vast majority"? Does the "vast majority" not care much about leverage, and in any case "for the vast majority" the "best choice would be 2%"???
Something you missed....
))))
Well, there are amateurs, not without that)
Why didn't you mention leverage "for the vast majority"? Does "for the vast majority" the size of the leverage doesn't matter much, and in any case "for the vast majority" the "best choice would be 2%"???
Something you've overlooked....
What difference does leverage make if I have a loss of 2% when a stop comes in?
What difference does the leverage make if I have a loss of 2% when the stop comes in ?
Here... This is where the misunderstanding of the situation hides...
And the difference is very significant !
A leverage of 100 will cause a 2% loss in case of a counter-movement of X pips (e.g. X = 100pts).
With 200 leverage, a 2% loss will be fixed at X/2 pips counter (i.e. X/2 = 50 pts)
Do you think this is nonsense and makes no difference?