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If you have a different deposit currency from the base of the pair then point 2 will be there even if you don't see it, otherwise how will you get a profit to your deposit.
sergeev
No error, but you have only considered one option after point 4 - you have a profit on EURGBP
and it is better to consider the process on points 7-6-5. You can see what you have had - profit or loss.
Renat
Simplify the situation to the result of +10 GBP and -10 GBP, for all the preceding has nothing to do with the final stage of calculation.
You only need an answer on how exactly the final GBP -> USD conversion is done. And the answer is very simple, but some people confuse themselves with reasoning about previous operations.I deliberately walked away from profit/loss concepts and merged this calculation already at the stage of depositing.
Since I haven't made any preliminary calculations, i.e. I haven't checked if the deal was profitable, it unifies the results for any deal.
OK, I'll throw in a script for the calculation...
Urain, I don't think there is a point 2.
Urain, I think there is no point 2.
Sorry, the reply function isn't working. I have to use the quote.
Are you saying that profit conversion into the deposit currency is done by DC at its own expense?
ZZY Judging by the extended spreads on crosses, I would even say that DTs do not conduct any cross operations at all, I count everything through the majors.
Sorry, the reply function isn't working. I have to use the quote.
Are you saying that conversion of profit to the currency of deposit is done by brokerage companies at their own expense?
That's what it's all about. It depends on the interpretation.
If we interpret the spread on the cross by the "all-inclusive" principle, then the conversion for the trader should be free. (More precisely - paid for when trading cross).
If the spread on the cross is "independent" - then Renat is right, and we have to convert at the exchange rate (without the leverage itself).
Urain 2012.03.20 16:24 #
For example, we have a lot of money in the market, but we have not got a single one, so we have to make a decision.
MetaDriver 2012.03.20 16:32 #
That's what it's all about. It depends on the interpretation.
If you interpret the cross spread as "all inclusive", then the conversion should be free for the trader. (more precisely - paid when trading cross).
If the spread on the cross is "independent" - then Renat is right, and we must convert at the rate (without the leverage).Urain 2012.03.20 16:24 #
ZZY Judging by the extended spreads on crosses, I would even say that DTs do not conduct any cross operations at all, they calculate everything through majors.
Urain:
If only we had the 100% correct answer to this question, we may get an example.It turns out that Renat is right because that is how the calculation is calculated in the MT, the formula for which he set up the calculation.
In other words, the question is not "who is right or wrong", but "how legitimate is this approach".
The answer to this question stems from the answer, but at what rate does DC convert profit from the current currency to the currency of the deposit?
After all, there are two prices when converting.
This is how I see it:
ZS: waiting for stones ))