Nope!
This is due to faulty history data (or whatever you wanna call it). That change took place at the end of 2006 (or at some time in 2006).
Just take a closer look at the 1M data before and after the peak... the change is abrupt from one bar to the next.
The data looks totally differen before and after this bar !
I dunno if this change was made deliberatly by the brokers (filtering), but scalping before this point in time was super simple
and super profitable. Not so any more.
Help me out - how strong is the correlation among test data before the end of 2006, after 2006 and actual market data?
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This over the entire set of historical datapoints.
Starts with 10K... ends at 15Billion.
Mike