GRAAL is found. Chapter I prologue. - page 34
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correct
So the price draws on the chart the movements we see, right?
But we don't see what price leaves on the chart during the movement, do we?
Yeah.
But it leaves invisible levels. What kind of levels?
these levels are big orders placed by big players or by the MM
The interesting thing is that they put these levels backwards opposite to the current time
that's how they work, you'll crack your brain if you try to find them)
i.e. there's nothing supernatural here
the rake I created sees those places where the bids can move the price, it's the time coordinates that they are placed there
and when the price comes close to the level and over time too
those bids are triggered and that causes the price disturbance in the market
in the form of invisible support and resistance
for example like OM levels, when the price is close to it, it bounces from these levels but they are not seen on the chart
but they are there and very much )
PS; So there is no future )))))
There are only invisible mines in the market, it's a science to find them and use them to your advantage!
If we even know the level where there is a large order, how can we determine the time of its triggering? The speed of price movement to the level of the order can be different. If the price speed is high, the order will be triggered at one time, if the speed is low, the order will be triggered at another time, much later...
Can you elaborate on backwards?
It's the same as backwards. ;)
Why can't he buy assets at once? It's simple. If he starts buying on the "market" he will buy the shares of limit sellers that are on top. And the price will rise so fast that the buyer won't be able to form a position at a price he can accept.
So in order to load a good position, the buyer uses a set channel, most often a sideways channel, which is also called price consolidation or flat. A tapered channel (triangle) is also used for this purpose.
Sets of channels can sometimes last for many months, and in order to prevent prices from exiting the channel prematurely, the buyer places large caps on the borders of the channel, known as 'slabs'. Such slabs are very difficult for buyers with small investments (minority buyers) to 'eat away'
.An example of a dialed sidewall based on Magnit shares
We can see a small sideways channel with further upward distribution. We can see that the exit from the channel occurred on higher volumes. This means that after the formation of the position, the buyer began to actively buy "on the market", which caused the rise in price.
Dial-up channels sometimes last for many months and, in order to prevent the price from leaving the channel prematurely, the buyer puts large limits on the boundaries of the channel, so-called 'slabs'. Such slabs are very difficult for buyers with small investments (minority buyers) to 'eat away'.
You can see that the exit from the channel occurred on higher volumes. This means that after forming a position, the buyer started to actively buy "on the market", which caused the price to rise.
For us who are not so smart, can you explain this point: this big buyer, in order to prevent the price from going higher than he wants, puts a pony up volume on sale? And if he has not yet bought the volume he is putting on sale, he will open on shorts? I'm confused, he wants to buy, not sell?
And why did he start "buying on the market", that's more expensive than he was buying in the channel he supposedly created himself ?
Why would he start "buying on the market" when it is more expensive than he was buying in the channel he supposedly created himself?
When the price starts to rise actively, the bulk of the buyers start to buy. And when the "fuel" for growth runs out, a pullback begins - a move opposite to the impulse, in our case downwards.
Levels, fact.
99% go to study the indices and read the reports and other information.
1% easily bypass them.
Why?
the market isn't perfect to hide things from outsiders
there's still a tiny little loophole where you can get a fish
If we even know the level where there is a large order, how can we determine the time of its triggering? The speed of price movement to the level of the order can be different. If the price speed is high, the order will trigger at one time, if the speed is low, the order will trigger at another time, much later...
This is the closing time of the futures contracts +/-)
For those of us who are not so smart, can you explain this point: this large volume buyer, in order to prevent the price from going higher than he wants, puts a pony volume on the sale? And if he has not yet bought the volume he is putting on sale, he will open on shorts? I'm confused, he wants to buy, not sell?
And why did he start "buying on the market", that's more expensive than he was buying in the channel he supposedly created himself ?
Sounds nice, but in fact an owl on a globe. There could be several buyers, one of them had a channel, the other one bought the whole cutlet at once because he needs or knows something, or no one created any channels at all, and people were sluggishly speculating back and forth in the absence of news on the magnet, and then the reports came out, or again, some insider ... No facts about the buyer. It's an inference that's been sucked out of thin air.